<p>@Oliv's comment lead me to the following wikipedia article <a href="https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inverse_relation" rel="nofollow">https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inverse_relation</a>
which indicates that the term "inverse" is used to define the kind of relation between $R$ and $R'$ that I described in the question.</p>

<p>The wikipedia article recommends to use $R^{-1}$ to denote the inverse relation of $R$.</p>

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2016-02-05T23:50:08.027Z
2016-02-05T23:50:08.027Z
Martin Van der Linden
<p>This might be related to : <a href="https://economics.stackexchange.com/questions/5485/symmetric-and-asymmetric-preferences">Symmetric and asymmetric preferences</a>.</p>

<p>In your experience, what is the best terminology to denote a pair of preference relations $(R,R')$ over some set of alternatives $A$ such that, for all $a,b \in A$, $a~R~b$ implies $b~R'~a$?</p>

CC BY-SA 3.0
2016-02-05T23:27:19.613Z
In math, $R'$ is usually referred to as the inverse relation of $R$. In economics, I have never seen such a definition, but I would say that "inverse" preferences make perfect sense.
Oliv
<microeconomics><preferences><decision-theory><definition>
Best terminology for "inverse" preferences
Martin Van der Linden
# Best terminology for "inverse" preferences

(Asked by: username_0 on 2016-02-05)

This might be related to : [Symmetric and asymmetric preferences](https://economics.stackexchange.com/questions/5485/symmetric-and-asymmetric-preferences).

In your experience, what is the best terminology to denote a pair of preference relations $(R,R')$ over some set of alternatives $A$ such that, for all $a,b \in A$, $a~R~b$ implies $b~R'~a$?

**Tags:** microeconomics, preferences, decision-theory, definition
> **Comments:**
> **username_1**: In math, $R'$ is usually referred to as the inverse relation of $R$. In economics, I have never seen such a definition, but I would say that "inverse" preferences make perfect sense.  

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## 1 answers

### Answer by username_0 on 2016-02-05. Score: 2 | Accepted answer

@Oliv's comment lead me to the following wikipedia article <https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inverse_relation>
which indicates that the term "inverse" is used to define the kind of relation between $R$ and $R'$ that I described in the question.

The wikipedia article recommends to use $R^{-1}$ to denote the inverse relation of $R$.


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