<p>I think your answer is OK.</p>

<ul>
<li>A doesn't connect prices in any way. In a two-goods economy and given that wealth doesn't change... you may give it some more thought but you need to add extra assumptions.</li>
<li>B tells us nothing on why such change would take effect. It may just as well be that oil is more valued.</li>
<li>C is the right answer</li>
<li>You need more assumptions for D, e.g. why the oil price increased. At least in the really short term, though, supply isn't a factor.</li>
</ul>

CC BY-SA 3.0
2016-04-05T14:47:40.990Z
2016-04-05T14:47:40.990Z
one_teach_wonder
<p>A) Oil is inferior good while natural gas is normal good.</p>

<p>B) Both of them are normal good.</p>

<p>C)They are substitute goods and the higher price for oil increased the demand for natural gas.</p>

<p>D)They are substitute goods and the higher price for oil decreased the supply for natural gas.</p>

<p>In my personal opinion, the answer should be C. We can eliminate A and B first as there's no indication of income change. For D think since substitute good refers to the customer side so I think we should also remove D. Is there a better explanation ? </p>

CC BY-SA 3.0
2016-04-05T13:12:17.873Z
Yes, a price change in one of two substitute goods will cause a change in demand for that good and its substitute.
dismalscience
<microeconomics><supply-and-demand>
Which of the following explains that the price increase of oil cause the price of natural gas to increase?
CoolKid
# Which of the following explains that the price increase of oil cause the price of natural gas to increase?

(Asked by: username_0 on 2016-04-05)

A) Oil is inferior good while natural gas is normal good.

B) Both of them are normal good.

C)They are substitute goods and the higher price for oil increased the demand for natural gas.

D)They are substitute goods and the higher price for oil decreased the supply for natural gas.

In my personal opinion, the answer should be C. We can eliminate A and B first as there's no indication of income change. For D think since substitute good refers to the customer side so I think we should also remove D. Is there a better explanation ?

**Tags:** microeconomics, supply-and-demand
> **Comments:**
> **username_1**: Yes, a price change in one of two substitute goods will cause a change in demand for that good and its substitute.  

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## 1 answers

### Answer by username_2 on 2016-04-05. Score: 2

I think your answer is OK.

* A doesn't connect prices in any way. In a two-goods economy and given that wealth doesn't change... you may give it some more thought but you need to add extra assumptions.
* B tells us nothing on why such change would take effect. It may just as well be that oil is more valued.
* C is the right answer
* You need more assumptions for D, e.g. why the oil price increased. At least in the really short term, though, supply isn't a factor.


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