<p>Why is the -1 necessary?</p>
<p>Is it because while the MRS is a ratio of Marginal Utilities which is positive so the MRS is also always positive, the gradient of the indifference is always negative, so the -1 is needed to balance out the signs?</p>

CC BY-SA 4.0
2024-12-23T19:31:02.750Z
This question is similar to: [Does Varian define the MRS differently/ as negative?](https://economics.stackexchange.com/questions/51887/does-varian-define-the-mrs-differently-as-negative). If you believe it’s different, please [edit] the question, make it clear how it’s different and/or how the answers on that question are not helpful for your problem.
Herr K.
CC BY-SA 4.0
2024-12-23T19:36:37.027Z
See also: https://economics.stackexchange.com/a/11187/42
Herr K.
<utility>
Why is MRS the gradient of the indifference curve times -1?
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# Why is MRS the gradient of the indifference curve times -1?

(Asked by: username_0 on 2024-12-23)

Why is the -1 necessary?

Is it because while the MRS is a ratio of Marginal Utilities which is positive so the MRS is also always positive, the gradient of the indifference is always negative, so the -1 is needed to balance out the signs?

**Tags:** utility
> **Comments:**
> **username_1**: This question is similar to: [Does Varian define the MRS differently/ as negative?](https://economics.stackexchange.com/questions/51887/does-varian-define-the-mrs-differently-as-negative). If you believe it’s different, please [edit] the question, make it clear how it’s different and/or how the answers on that question are not helpful for your problem.  
> **username_1**: See also: https://economics.stackexchange.com/a/11187/42  

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