<p>We say that two utility functions represent the same preferences because the current utility theory is ordinal, rather than cardinal, which means that we do not care about the specific number that a consumption bundle gives us when we plug it into the function, we only care about the order of preferences, i.d. whether u(A)>u(B), u(A)=u(B) or u(A)

CC BY-SA 4.0
2018-09-19T01:29:10.387Z
2018-09-19T01:29:10.387Z
Carlos N
<p>I wonder why two functions can represent the same preferences? </p>

CC BY-SA 4.0
2018-09-19T15:45:13.387Z
Well what does it mean that a function represents a preference?
Giskard
<microeconomics>
Why can two functions represent the same preferences?
Dogge
# Why can two functions represent the same preferences?

(Asked by: username_0 on 2018-09-19)

I wonder why two functions can represent the same preferences?

**Tags:** microeconomics
> **Comments:**
> **username_1**: Well what does it mean that a function represents a preference?  

---

## 1 answers

### Answer by username_2 on 2018-09-19. Score: 2

We say that two utility functions represent the same preferences because the current utility theory is ordinal, rather than cardinal, which means that we do not care about the specific number that a consumption bundle gives us when we plug it into the function, we only care about the order of preferences, i.d. whether u(A)>u(B), u(A)=u(B) or u(A)


---

