<blockquote>
<p>Can I use this aggregate GDP per capita to calculate the GDP of a regional/local area, if I have the population numbers for these areas?</p>
</blockquote>
<p>No it is well known that virtually every country has non-trivial regional disparities. This would only make sense for a country where all regions are very homogeneous, and I can’t even think of such country as an example.</p>

CC BY-SA 4.0
2023-07-31T19:54:34.367Z
2023-07-31T19:54:34.367Z
1muflon1
<p>If I have range of data with aggregate GDP per capita and population data (not only on a national level, but also regional and local level). Can I use this aggregate GDP per capita to calculate the GDP of a regional/local area, if I have the population numbers for these areas? For example, aggregate GDP per capita for given country is 100 in a given currency, and this city has 10000 people. Then the GDP for this city is 100*10000 people = 1 million in a given currency.</p>

CC BY-SA 4.0
2023-07-31T18:16:57.373Z
Is it reasonable to assume that every region has the same GDP per capita? This amounts to assuming that every region is equally productive. What is the purpose of doing what you propose?
smcc
<gdp><population-economics>
Using aggregate GDP per capita and regional and local population stats to calculate its GDP
Juuni
# Using aggregate GDP per capita and regional and local population stats to calculate its GDP

(Asked by: username_0 on 2023-07-31)

If I have range of data with aggregate GDP per capita and population data (not only on a national level, but also regional and local level). Can I use this aggregate GDP per capita to calculate the GDP of a regional/local area, if I have the population numbers for these areas? For example, aggregate GDP per capita for given country is 100 in a given currency, and this city has 10000 people. Then the GDP for this city is 100\*10000 people = 1 million in a given currency.

**Tags:** gdp, population-economics
> **Comments:**
> **username_1**: Is it reasonable to assume that every region has the same GDP per capita? This amounts to assuming that every region is equally productive. What is the purpose of doing what you propose?  

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## 1 answers

### Answer by username_2 on 2023-07-31. Score: 0

> Can I use this aggregate GDP per capita to calculate the GDP of a regional/local area, if I have the population numbers for these areas?

No it is well known that virtually every country has non-trivial regional disparities. This would only make sense for a country where all regions are very homogeneous, and I can’t even think of such country as an example.


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