<p>A question I got on an exam that I think I messed up on:
If we have cross elasticity of 0 (x &amp; y are independent), can x be an inferior good? I answered with a yes. Am I wrong?</p>

CC BY-SA 4.0
2019-01-30T20:46:07.547Z
The interesting thing would be to tell us _why_ you answered yes, or at least why now you think that you should have answered no.
Alecos Papadopoulos
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2019-01-30T20:47:01.323Z
Why I answered yes: ran out of time, why I think I'm wrong: I can't think of such a function
user20950
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2019-01-30T21:26:46.363Z
@AlecosPapadopoulos do you have an answer at least? :/
user20950
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2019-01-30T21:29:51.503Z
Possibly, but not yet.
Alecos Papadopoulos
<microeconomics><utility><elasticity>
Is there a possibility to have an inferior good (x) in a utility function where x & y have 0 cross elasticity?
user20950
# Is there a possibility to have an inferior good (x) in a utility function where x & y have 0 cross elasticity?

(Asked by: username_0 on 2019-01-30)

A question I got on an exam that I think I messed up on:
If we have cross elasticity of 0 (x & y are independent), can x be an inferior good? I answered with a yes. Am I wrong?

**Tags:** microeconomics, utility, elasticity
> **Comments:**
> **username_1**: The interesting thing would be to tell us _why_ you answered yes, or at least why now you think that you should have answered no.  
> **username_0**: Why I answered yes: ran out of time, why I think I'm wrong: I can't think of such a function  
> **username_0**: @AlecosPapadopoulos do you have an answer at least? :/  
> **username_1**: Possibly, but not yet.  

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## 0 answers

