<p>In <em>Tomorrow's People</em>, by Paul Morland, the author discusses the inequality of infant mortality within nations:</p>
<blockquote>
<p>The worst countries have made the fastest progress, so the gap is closing at the international level. For example, the infant mortality rate in Malawi in 1950 was almost 150 per thousand greater than that in the US; today it is just thirty-five per thousand greater. On the other hand, there are growing disparities within Malawi, where progress has been uneven. The best results are achieved in urban areas, where facilities and education are easiest to supply, while rural areas are relatively neglected. Corruption, shown in the preferential treatment of certain regions and <strong>in the creation of a middle class</strong>, also exacerbates divergence within borders. In Malawi, infant mortality in wealthy urban areas was, according to a 2014 survey, less than half the level in poor rural regions.</p>
</blockquote>
<p>How can corruption be shown in the creation of middle class? Isn't the middle class supposed to be a positive thing?</p>

CC BY-SA 4.0
2023-12-12T10:03:51.603Z
That’s indeed weird claim, not that corruption could possibly have lead to increase in middle class but saying middle class is itself evidence of corruption without any further elaboration is quite dubious. Unless the author explains what they mean it’s difficult to comment on it, is it possibly bad translation of original (if it’s not originally published in English)? You could try to see what the sentence says in original language
1muflon1
CC BY-SA 4.0
2023-12-13T08:05:07.050Z
@1muflon1 Unfortunately this is the original text
Ahmed Samir
<demographics>
How can corruption be shown in the creation of middle class?
Ahmed Samir
# How can corruption be shown in the creation of middle class?

(Asked by: username_0 on 2023-12-12)

In *Tomorrow's People*, by Paul Morland, the author discusses the inequality of infant mortality within nations:

> The worst countries have made the fastest progress, so the gap is closing at the international level. For example, the infant mortality rate in Malawi in 1950 was almost 150 per thousand greater than that in the US; today it is just thirty-five per thousand greater. On the other hand, there are growing disparities within Malawi, where progress has been uneven. The best results are achieved in urban areas, where facilities and education are easiest to supply, while rural areas are relatively neglected. Corruption, shown in the preferential treatment of certain regions and **in the creation of a middle class**, also exacerbates divergence within borders. In Malawi, infant mortality in wealthy urban areas was, according to a 2014 survey, less than half the level in poor rural regions.

How can corruption be shown in the creation of middle class? Isn't the middle class supposed to be a positive thing?

**Tags:** demographics
> **Comments:**
> **username_1**: That’s indeed weird claim, not that corruption could possibly have lead to increase in middle class but saying middle class is itself evidence of corruption without any further elaboration is quite dubious. Unless the author explains what they mean it’s difficult to comment on it, is it possibly bad translation of original (if it’s not originally published in English)? You could try to see what the sentence says in original language  
> **username_0**: @1muflon1 Unfortunately this is the original text  

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## 0 answers

