<p>The literal translation of Autorité de la concurrence is authority of competition. The more common English form is competition authority. These regulatory bodies are government offices.</p>
<p>&quot;Independent&quot; means that although the officials are government officials their decisions are not supposed to be influenced by the national government (similar to the central bank).</p>
<p>The following is a quote from the antitrust industry paper <a href="https://www.concurrences.com/en/dictionary/damages" rel="nofollow noreferrer">Concurrences</a>:</p>
<blockquote>
<p>Damages for infringements of competition law have a two-fold purpose. Firstly, they seek to compensate the victim and put her into the position she would have been absent the infringement. Secondly, they have a deterrent effect on current or future infringers deciding whether to continue an ongoing anticompetitive conduct or to engage in one. Whereas damages are always compensatory, if emphasis is set on the latter purpose, they may become punitive.</p>
</blockquote>
<p>Not sure about the French competition authority's situation; it is usual that some part of the fine simply goes to cover costs of the authority or straight to the Treasury. When the harm was divided among many agents, it is not unusual that a sum is set aside as part of the court decision/settlement, so that those harmed can enter a claim for compensation. Anyone claiming to be harmed has to provide proof. I am not sure what happens to the part of this sum that remains unclaimed.
<br>
Note that the authority also incurs costs (personnel salaries, cost of maintaining buildings and hiring outside council). I am guessing this depends on the legal environment, but in some countries the authority may cover their costs from their fines, but ultimately the Treasury is on the hook for their bills, should they ever fall short.</p>

CC BY-SA 4.0
2022-10-05T18:22:25.537Z
Thank you @tripleee for the spelling corrections.
Giskard
CC BY-SA 4.0
2022-10-06T14:57:19.980Z
Thank you for your time and the reply! You made it clear for me
Homewrecker
CC BY-SA 4.0
2022-10-05T18:06:20.390Z
2022-10-05T18:20:09.947Z
2022-10-05T18:20:09.947Z
Giskard
<p>I read about the huge fine ($147.4 million) that Luxottica received, the news can be read <a href="https://www.opticianonline.net/news/luxottica-fined-by-french-antitrust-authority" rel="nofollow noreferrer">here</a>.</p>
<p>This case seems to have been active from 1999 to 2015, so I understand that in includes fees and salaries for lawyers among others.</p>
<p>If I understand it correctly, the one who filed the charges is <a href="https://autoritedelaconcurrence.fr/en" rel="nofollow noreferrer">autoritedelaconcurrence.fr/en</a>
which claims to be/is an &quot;independent body&quot;.</p>
<p>How do these things usually play out when the case finally ends and the fine needs to be payed, who gets the money?</p>
<p>I am asking this because the &quot;independent body&quot; claims that they filed the charges because of &quot;unfair sales practices&quot;, which would affects consumers all around the world.</p>
<p>What seems to be logical for me is that part of the fine/money is distributed to those who have worked on the case (salaries, meeting costs etc.), and the rest of the fine/money covers the cost/difference between the original price (which in this case would be the &quot;unfair price&quot;) of the product (that have affected the consumers) and the enforced discount price that needs to be available for the consumers of the product, as a form of compensation.</p>
<p>Any input is appreciated!
Thank you for your time</p>

<law><competition-authority>
When a company is fined by an "independent body", where does the money go?
Homewrecker
# When a company is fined by an "independent body", where does the money go?

(Asked by: username_0 on 2022-10-05)

I read about the huge fine ($147.4 million) that Luxottica received, the news can be read [here](https://www.opticianonline.net/news/luxottica-fined-by-french-antitrust-authority).

This case seems to have been active from 1999 to 2015, so I understand that in includes fees and salaries for lawyers among others.

If I understand it correctly, the one who filed the charges is [autoritedelaconcurrence.fr/en](https://autoritedelaconcurrence.fr/en)
which claims to be/is an "independent body".

How do these things usually play out when the case finally ends and the fine needs to be payed, who gets the money?

I am asking this because the "independent body" claims that they filed the charges because of "unfair sales practices", which would affects consumers all around the world.

What seems to be logical for me is that part of the fine/money is distributed to those who have worked on the case (salaries, meeting costs etc.), and the rest of the fine/money covers the cost/difference between the original price (which in this case would be the "unfair price") of the product (that have affected the consumers) and the enforced discount price that needs to be available for the consumers of the product, as a form of compensation.

Any input is appreciated!
Thank you for your time

**Tags:** law, competition-authority

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## 1 answers

### Answer by username_1 on 2022-10-05. Score: 3

The literal translation of Autorité de la concurrence is authority of competition. The more common English form is competition authority. These regulatory bodies are government offices.

"Independent" means that although the officials are government officials their decisions are not supposed to be influenced by the national government (similar to the central bank).

The following is a quote from the antitrust industry paper [Concurrences](https://www.concurrences.com/en/dictionary/damages):

> Damages for infringements of competition law have a two-fold purpose. Firstly, they seek to compensate the victim and put her into the position she would have been absent the infringement. Secondly, they have a deterrent effect on current or future infringers deciding whether to continue an ongoing anticompetitive conduct or to engage in one. Whereas damages are always compensatory, if emphasis is set on the latter purpose, they may become punitive.

Not sure about the French competition authority's situation; it is usual that some part of the fine simply goes to cover costs of the authority or straight to the Treasury. When the harm was divided among many agents, it is not unusual that a sum is set aside as part of the court decision/settlement, so that those harmed can enter a claim for compensation. Anyone claiming to be harmed has to provide proof. I am not sure what happens to the part of this sum that remains unclaimed.
  
Note that the authority also incurs costs (personnel salaries, cost of maintaining buildings and hiring outside council). I am guessing this depends on the legal environment, but in some countries the authority may cover their costs from their fines, but ultimately the Treasury is on the hook for their bills, should they ever fall short.

> **Comments:**
> **username_1**: Thank you @tripleee for the spelling corrections.  
> **username_0**: Thank you for your time and the reply! You made it clear for me  

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