What is the biblical basis for the Immaculate Conception? According to Catholic Doctrine, the Immaculate Conception refers to the teaching that Mary's own conception (not that of Jesus) was without the stain of original sin.  

What is the biblical basis for this? And if this is true, did Mary not need to be saved from her sin? Was she also sinless? If she were sinless, then why would she have suffered the consequences of sin--that of death?
Q. Biblical Basis for Biblical literalists:

A. None.  

Catholics believe that Mary is a type prefigured in the Old Testament of the Ark of the Covenant.  The basis for this belief is rooted in scripture as firmly as Mary is rooted in scripture.  God created His mother, and in so doing He created His mother as a fit dwelling place, like the Holy of Holies.  And like the Holy of Holies the dwelling place would bear the effects of the perfect priest, the perfect prophet and the perfect king. That is why the ark contained Aaron's Rod, Manna from Heaven and the Ten Commandments. That is why Jesus is priest prophet and king. 

Q. Did Mary need to be redeemed?

A. Yes

But her redemption was pre-conception. 

Q. Was she sinless?

A. Yes

Through a singular grace, she was able to avoid sin.  In a way she lived on earth as we will live in Heaven.  Furthermore she experienced Christ as fully as any human is able to this side of the grave.

Q. Did she suffer the consequences of sin?

A. No

It was not as a consequence of sin. She chose death (or dormition as it's called in the East) in imitation of Jesus and was subsequently assumed body and soul into Heaven.

I'll leave you with one piece of Biblical basis for Mary being sanctified. Used in the dogmatic text defining the Assumption


  Arise, O Lord, into your resting place: you and the ark, which you have sanctified


(Old Translation of Psalm 131(132):8) 

More Info