Was Jesus was sent to speak to the Jews only? Matthew 15:24 KJV


  But he answered and said, I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the
  house of Israel.


I understand that he was talking specifically to a lady who was begging (successfully) for her daughter.  However, is Jesus trying to say that his message is only for the Jews to hear?  Does this conflict with Romans 10:12?

Romans 10:12 KJV


  For there is no difference between the Jew and the Greek: for the same
  Lord over all is rich unto all that call upon him.
If Jesus said He was not sent except to the lost sheep of the house of Israel, then that is certainly true.  If we don't accept Jesus' own words as true, then it would be difficult to imagine what the qualifications for acceptance would be.

So, yes, Jesus was sent to the lost sheep of the house of Israel.  That does not mean, however, that Jesus, the eternal Son of God, did not come ultimately to save the entire world.  His mission was quite strategic.  It has been well said, that "Jesus loved the world, preached to the multitudes, and gave His life to 12 men."  

He came to the Jews as their Messiah, yet His strategy was to reach the entire world.  Incidentally, that strategy is working quite well, and Christianity continues to spread even in the harshest and remotest of places.

God's plan from the beginning was to have a world full of people who reflected His image and who were in a relationship with Him.  His purpose has remained the same throughout time.  Becoming flesh in the virgin birth and presenting Himself as the Jewish Messiah to the Jewish people was just a part of that plan for all people.