Do Roman Catholics regard Orthodox sacraments as valid and/or licit? In the comments below an earlier question of mine the following question arose:

The Roman Catholic Church describes the administration of sacraments as valid or invalid respectively licit or illicit. Those concepts are not identical, for some reading start e.g. here.

The Eastern Orthodox Churches administer the same seven sacraments as the Roman Catholic Church does. Which poses the question, whether these sacraments can be equally described in terms of validity and licitly and whether the Roman Catholic Church does so.


  So my question is: Has the Roman Catholic Church declared the status of the sacraments administered in the Eastern Orthodox Churches
  in terms of validity and licitly and if so is it correct that those
  are regarded as valid but illicit?


Note that "no" might be a correct answer; but I do expect there to be some magisterial writing which a good answer should cite. It might also be that the answer is different for different sacraments.
Orthodox Sacraments are Valid

It is well-known that Catholics hold Orthodox sacraments to be valid:


  These [Eastern] Churches, although separated from us, possess true sacraments, above all by apostolic succession, the priesthood and the Eucharist, whereby they are linked with us in closest intimacy. (Unitatis Redintegratio, 15)


(See also, Faith, Sacraments, and the Unity of the Church, from the Joint Commission for the Theological Dialogue between the Roman Catholic Church and the Orthodox Church)

Are Orthodox Sacraments "licit"?

This is the harder question.  In my opinion it is a question founded on a misunderstanding.  Liceity is a term that means 'legal' or 'lawful', and in general an inquiry of this sort would be referred to the Catholic Church's Code of Canon Law.  The Code governs most happenings in the Catholic Church, but of course the supreme lawgiver is the Pope, and he is free to change Church Law as he sees fit.

Liceity is a measure that governs the internal operations of the Catholic Church according to her own laws.  It isn't meant to govern other church bodies, though other Churches or ecclesial communions may well consult Catholic Law in codifying their own systems or adjudicating disciplinary questions in their own sphere.  In essence this means that asking whether an Orthodox sacrament is licit is like asking whether Chinese internet censorship violates the First Amendment.  A non-Catholic Church is subject to Catholic Law no more than the Chinese government is subject to the U.S. Constitution.

Therefore I'm not sure this question makes sense.  You could ask a canon lawyer or the Pope himself, but I don't think they would quite know what to say.  There is no reason for this question to arise in the Catholic legal system, as Orthodox Christians are not subject to Catholic Law.  Only Catholics are concerned about liceity.