According to Catholicism, why did Jesus not name the rich man in the story of Lazarus and the rich man? In the story of the rich man and the poor man (Luke 16:19–31), Jesus did not name the rich man. The name Lazarus that Jesus gave to the poor man is said to have originated from a Greek word meaning 'God will help' or 'assistance of God'.

My question is: According to Catholicism, why did Jesus not name the rich man?  Was it in order to convey a message that His affinity was more towards the humble underdogs than towards the proud rich?
During his Thursday [Oct 8, 2015] morning homily at Casa Santa Marta, Pope Francis may have answered your question:


  "It is curious: that [rich] man’s name is never spoken. He is just an
  adjective: he is a rich man (It. ricco, Gr. πλοσιος). Of the wicked,
  in God’s record book, there is no name: he is an evil one, a con man,
  a pimp ... They have no name. They only have adjectives. All those,
  who try to go on the way of the Lord, will rather be with His Son, who
  has the name: Jesus Saviour. It is a name that is difficult to
  understand, inexplicable for the trial of the Cross and for all that
  He suffered for us.” - Pope Francis at Santa Marta explains why good
  things can happen to bad people | ROME REPORTS TV News Agency.