How does the Reformed tradition understand Philippians 2:6-9 as it regards the Hypostatic Union? Philippians 2:6-9


  (A) Though he was God,  he did not think of equality with God as
  something to cling to 
  
  but  (B) emptied himself, by taking the form of a servant, being
  born in the likeness of men
  
  And being found in human form,  (C) he humbled himself by becoming
  obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross.
  
  Therefore  (D) God has highly exalted him and bestowed on him the
  name that is above every name


I'm in the middle conversation with some of my Christian friends who hold Hypostatic Union. But although they hold the same thing, it seems there is still a different opinion of the verse between them.

Friend-1
Point A is talking before the Incarnation.
Point B is talking just about the Incarnation.
Point C is talking during the Incarnation.
Point D is because point C not because point B.

Friend-2 
point-A is talking during the Incarnation.
point-B is talking during the Incarnation.
Point C is talking during the Incarnation.
Point D is because point B and because point C.

So, which one is correct according to the Reformed tradition?

Thank you.
A refers to the fact that He became incarnate, and His humility (motive, "mindset" 2:5). Thus, it implicitly contains what He was thinking before the incarnation, but isn't strictly speaking of a specific time.

B the example used for His humility—that He took on the form of a man. Again, it's not so much a time point, rather than recounting the mindset He had in becoming incarnate in general. Now that he is speaking of the incarnate Word (implicit post-incarnation), He is not likely (and doesn't) go back to speak of Him before the Incarnation.

C He is "in human form" and thus this is speaking post-incarnation.

D He is exalted because God the Father loves the perfect humility of His Son; the incarnation necessarily meant God the Father granted to His blameless and divine Son every privlege, including and included in exaltation.