How does open theology interpret 1 Peter 1:2? How do followers of open theology (open theism)1 interpret 1 Peter 1:2 (KJV), in particular the emphasized part?


  Elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, through sanctification of the Spirit, unto obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ: Grace unto you, and peace, be multiplied.


In what sense was God's plan carried out according to his foreknowledge, in open theology? Note that it is foreknowledge that is in focus of my question. 

According to Wikipedia there are four branches of open theism:


  
  Voluntary Nescience: The future is alethically settled but nevertheless epistemically open for God because he has voluntarily chosen not to know truths about future contingents ...
  Involuntary Nescience: The future is alethically settled but nevertheless epistemically open for God because truths about future contingents are in principle unknowable ...
  Non-Bivalentist Omniscience: The future is alethically open and therefore epistemically open for God because propositions about future contingents are neither true nor false ...
  Bivalentist Omniscience: The future is alethically open and therefore epistemically open for God because propositions asserting of future contingents that they 'will' obtain or that they 'will not' obtain are both false. Instead, what is true is that they 'might and might not' obtain ...
  


So followers of either Nescience branch believes that while there is a definite future, God does not know it (either voluntarily or involuntarily). On the other hand, followers of either Omniscience branch believes that the future is not (fully) settled, but that God has perfect knowledge as far as it makes sense to talk about it.

Optimally, an answer would deal separately with each branch, or provide an answer that all branches support.



1&emsp;Open Theism is the thesis that, because God loves us and desires that we freely choose to reciprocate His love, He has made His knowledge of, and plans for, the future conditional upon our actions. Though omniscient, God does not know what we will freely do in the future. (quoted from linked reference)
1 Peter 1:2 KJV  Elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, through sanctification of the Spirit, unto obedience and
sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ: Grace unto you, and peace,
be multiplied.


This not a reference to an individual salvation but the plan of salvation. Obviously, God had foreknowledge of his own plan which was through the "sanctification of the Spirit" which we obtain when we obeyed and believed on our Lord's sacrifice. So, God foreknew, foreordained, predestinated, that all who would believe on His Son would be saved. 

I am not sure this is the right question to respond with a definition of the different theological positions on foreknowledge, but I will be looking for one.