Why does the (N)KJV put Jesus' name in all caps in Matthew 1:21 and Luke 1:31? It's only in the King James and the New King James, but why is Jesus' name in all caps?


  And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS:
  for he shall save his people from their sins.Matthew 1:21
  
  And, behold, thou shalt conceive in thy womb, and bring forth a son,
  and shalt call his name JESUS. Luke 1:31


It isn't like this anywhere else in the Bible. The word in the Greek is the same as in other instances of the name. Why? And why only in the KJV?
I'm pretty sure this is just a typesetting decision---more akin to using quotation marks.
For example, when the Gospels say what was written on the sign above Jesus' cross, they tend to typeset the message in all caps:

And the superscription of His accusation was written over, THE KING OF THE JEWS. Mk 15:26
And a superscription also was written over Him in letters of Greek, and Latin, and Hebrew, THIS IS THE KING OF THE JEWS. - Lk 23:38
And set up over His head His accusation written, THIS IS JESUS THE KING OF THE JEWS - Mt 27:37
And Pilate wrote a title, and put it on the cross. And the writing was JESUS OF NAZARETH THE KING OF THE JEWS. -Jn 19:19-20

On the other hand, an identical construction occurs only a few verses before the Lk passage for John:

But the angel said unto him, Fear not, Zacharias: for thy prayer is heard; and thy wife Elisabeth shall bear thee a son, and thou shalt call his name John. - Lk 1:13

One other thing to consider, since Jesus' name is Semitic---and in Mark's case its meaning has bearing on the story (&quot;for he will save his people from their sins&quot;)---it may be because it was in a different language (though of course, still written in the Greek script). The difficulty here is that the KJV doesn't capitalize transliteration elsewhere.