Why does St. Paul say that a husband is "divided" between his wife and God? According to Catholic theologians, why does St. Paul say that a husband is &quot;divided&quot; between pleasing his wife and pleasing God?
Can't a husband please God by pleasing his wife? Or is that what Paul meant?
1 Cor. 7:32-33:


But I would have you to be without solicitude. He that is without a wife, is solicitous for the things that belong to the Lord, how he may please God.
But he that is with a wife, is solicitous for the things of the world, how he may please his wife: and he is divided.
The Navarre Bible New Testament Compact Edition's Note on 1 Cor 7:25-38

The excellence of virginity and celibacy has to do with the love of
God: the unmarried person can dedicate himself or herself to God more
fully than a married person can. &quot;Both the sacrament of Matrimony and
virginity for the Kingdom of God come from the LORD himself. It is he
who gives them meaning and grants them the grace which is
indispensable for living them out in conformity with his will&quot; (CCC,
1620).
[...]

It is plain but explaining ...
For the individual what is best for that person is the vocation to which one has been called to. So if God calls one to be married, that's the best for that person. If God calls another to virginity or celibacy, one achieves their sanctity by responding to that call and living truthfully their vocation in life.
The Church has always held and upheld the excellence of virginity and celibacy over marriage1 for the simple reason that those who have received it please God directly without the mediation of an earthly and noble love. They live here and now Jesus' own calling[cf. Mt 19:12] and what will be our state in the age to come.

1. cf. Virginity or Celibacy for the Sake of the Kingdom | General Audience 10 March 1982 | Pope St. John Paul II [the Great].