<human>: Question: When would American law be more likely to follow English law?

Is "The reason is that although the courts of the various Commonwealth nations are often influenced by each other's rulings, American courts rarely follow post-Revolution Commonwealth rulings unless there is no American ruling on point, the facts and law at issue are nearly identical, and the reasoning is strongly persuasive." the correct answer?

OPTIONS:
- yes
- no
<bot>: yes